Free CCNA 200-301 Practice Questions with Explanations

Twenty-one free sample questions in the style of the Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam: three multiple-choice questions for each exam domain plus three drag-and-drop tasks. Pick an answer, then press Show explanation to see whether you were right and why the other options are wrong. The full question bank has more than 1,400 questions in exam, practice and learning mode.

1. Network Fundamentals 20% of the exam

Question 1Sample question

A host is configured with the address 172.16.45.130/26. What is the broadcast address of its subnet?

Show explanation

Answer: C — 172.16.45.191.

A /26 mask is 255.255.255.192, so the subnets in the last octet go up in blocks of 64: .0, .64, .128, .192. The address .130 falls in the 172.16.45.128 subnet. The broadcast is the last address before the next subnet: .192 − 1 = .191. Usable hosts are .129–.190.

.127 is the broadcast of the previous subnet, .159 would be correct for a /27, and .255 for a /24.

Question 2Sample question

An interface shows the IPv6 address FE80::21A:2BFF:FE3C:4D5E. Which type of address is it?

Show explanation

Answer: C — Link-local.

Addresses in FE80::/10 are link-local. Every IPv6-enabled interface creates one automatically, routers never forward them off the link, and routing protocols such as OSPFv3 use them as the next-hop address. The FFFE in the middle of the interface ID shows it was built with modified EUI-64 from the MAC address.

Global unicast addresses currently come from 2000::/3, unique local from FC00::/7 (in practice FD00::/8), and multicast from FF00::/8.

Question 3Sample question

Which statement about UDP is true?

Show explanation

Answer: B.

UDP is connectionless: no handshake, no sequence numbers, no acknowledgements, no windowing. If reliability is needed, the application provides it. That low overhead is why voice, video, DNS queries, DHCP and TFTP use UDP.

The handshake and windowing belong to TCP. The UDP header is only 8 bytes (source port, destination port, length, checksum); 20 bytes is the minimum TCP header.

Question 4Drag and drop

Drag and drop the items from the left to the OSI layer they belong to on the right.

MAC address
TCP port number
Router
Frame
IP address
Segment
Switch
Packet
UDP
Layer 2 — Data Link
Layer 3 — Network
Layer 4 — Transport

Drag an item into a category box, or tap the item and then tap the box.

Show explanation

Correct placement:

  • Layer 2 — Data Link: MAC address, Frame, Switch
  • Layer 3 — Network: Router, IP address, Packet
  • Layer 4 — Transport: TCP port number, Segment, UDP

Layer 2 moves frames between devices on the same link using MAC addresses, and a classic switch works here.

Layer 3 moves packets between networks using IP addresses, and this is the job of the router.

Layer 4 delivers data between applications: TCP and UDP add port numbers, and a TCP data unit is called a segment (a UDP one, a datagram).

More Network Fundamentals questions in the full CCNA bank →

2. Network Access 20% of the exam

Question 5Sample question

Two Cisco switches are connected. Both ends of the link are configured with switchport mode dynamic auto. What is the result?

Show explanation

Answer: B — access link.

A port in dynamic auto only answers DTP requests; it never starts negotiation. With auto on both sides nobody asks, so the link stays an access link. A trunk forms when at least one side is dynamic desirable or trunk.

In production, set trunks statically with switchport mode trunk and turn DTP off with switchport nonegotiate.

Question 6Sample question

Three switches run Rapid PVST+. For VLAN 1 they advertise these bridge IDs. Which switch becomes the root bridge for VLAN 1?

SW1  priority 32769  MAC 0011.2233.4401
SW2  priority 32769  MAC 000A.1122.3301
SW3  priority 28673  MAC 00AA.BBCC.DD01
Show explanation

Answer: C — SW3.

The lowest bridge ID wins, and the priority is compared before the MAC address. SW3 has 28673 (28672 + VLAN 1 as the system ID extension), lower than 32769 on the other two, so it is root even though its MAC address is the highest.

The MAC address only breaks a tie between equal priorities. If SW3 were removed, SW2 would win over SW1 because 000A… is lower than 0011….

Question 7Sample question

Which pair of EtherChannel modes, one on each switch, forms a channel?

Show explanation

Answer: C — active – passive.

LACP has two modes: active sends LACP packets, passive only replies. A channel forms when at least one side is active: active–active or active–passive. Passive–passive never starts negotiation.

On forces a channel with no protocol, so it only works with on at the other end. Auto is a PAgP mode and cannot talk to LACP.

More Network Access questions in the full CCNA bank →

3. IP Connectivity 25% of the exam

Question 8Sample question

A router has these routes. Which one does it use to forward a packet to 10.1.1.200?

S     10.1.1.0/25 [1/0] via 192.168.1.1
D     10.1.1.0/24 [90/30720] via 192.168.2.1
O     10.1.0.0/16 [110/20] via 192.168.3.1
S*    0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.4.1
Show explanation

Answer: B — the EIGRP route 10.1.1.0/24.

The router picks the longest prefix that actually contains the destination. 10.1.1.0/25 covers only 10.1.1.0–10.1.1.127, so 10.1.1.200 does not match it at all. Of the routes that do match (/24, /16, /0), the /24 is the longest.

Administrative distance does not decide here: it only compares routes to the same prefix learned from different sources.

Question 9Sample question

A router learns 192.168.50.0/24 through OSPF. You want a static route to the same network that is used only if the OSPF route disappears. Which command does that?

Show explanation

Answer: C — administrative distance 115.

This is a floating static route. OSPF has an administrative distance of 110, so the static route needs a higher one to stay out of the routing table while OSPF is working. 115 does that, and when the OSPF route is lost the static route is installed.

Without a distance (A) the static route has AD 1 and replaces OSPF immediately; 100 is also lower than 110. AD 255 means “never trust”, so that route is never installed at all.

Question 10Sample question

Two routers on the same Ethernet segment do not become OSPF neighbors. Which difference between them causes this?

Show explanation

Answer: C — hello/dead interval mismatch.

Hello packets carry the hello and dead intervals, and neighbors must agree on them. They must also share the area ID, the subnet and mask, the authentication settings and the stub area flag. An MTU mismatch lets them see each other but leaves them stuck in EXSTART/EXCHANGE.

The process ID is local to each router and may differ. Router IDs must be different. Priority only influences the DR/BDR election.

More IP Connectivity questions in the full CCNA bank →

4. IP Services 10% of the exam

Question 11Sample question

What does this command configure?

ip nat inside source list 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/1 overload
Show explanation

Answer: C — PAT (NAT overload) on the interface address.

ACL 1 selects which inside source addresses are translated, interface GigabitEthernet0/1 uses that interface’s address as the public address, and overload lets many hosts share it by tracking different source ports. This is the typical setup for an office internet connection.

Dynamic NAT would refer to a pool; static NAT maps one fixed inside address with ip nat inside source static. The interfaces still need ip nat inside and ip nat outside.

Question 12Sample question

PCs in VLAN 20 must get addresses from a DHCP server that sits in a different subnet. What do you configure on the VLAN 20 default-gateway interface?

Show explanation

Answer: B — ip helper-address.

DHCP Discover is a broadcast, and routers do not forward broadcasts. ip helper-address turns the gateway into a DHCP relay agent: it receives the broadcast, sends it as a unicast to the server and adds its own interface address (giaddr), so the server knows which pool to use.

ip dhcp pool and excluded-address are for a router that is itself the DHCP server. ip address dhcp makes the interface a DHCP client.

Question 13Sample question

Which command makes a router synchronise its clock from the NTP server 10.0.0.1?

Show explanation

Answer: B — ntp server 10.0.0.1.

ntp server makes the router an NTP client of that server. Check it with show ntp status (synchronised, stratum) and show ntp associations.

ntp master does the opposite: the router announces its own clock as an authoritative source. ntp peer sets up symmetric mode, where the two devices can sync each other. clock set sets the time by hand and takes a time and date, not an address.

Question 14Drag and drop

Drag and drop the protocols from the left to the transport protocol they normally use on the right.

SSH
DHCP
HTTPS
TFTP
SMTP
SNMP
FTP
Syslog
TCP
UDP

Drag an item into a category box, or tap the item and then tap the box.

Show explanation

Correct placement:

  • TCP: SSH, HTTPS, SMTP, FTP
  • UDP: DHCP, TFTP, SNMP, Syslog

TCP: SSH (22), HTTPS (443), SMTP (25) and FTP (20/21). These need reliable, ordered delivery, so they use TCP’s handshake, acknowledgements and retransmission.

UDP: DHCP (67/68), TFTP (69), SNMP (161/162) and Syslog (514). They are short request/response exchanges or one-way messages where TCP’s overhead is not worth it; TFTP adds its own simple acknowledgements on top of UDP.

DNS is the classic exception: queries use UDP 53, zone transfers and large responses use TCP 53, which is why it is not in this list.

More IP Services questions in the full CCNA bank →

5. Security Fundamentals 15% of the exam

Question 15Sample question

Which port-security violation mode drops frames from unknown MAC addresses, sends a syslog message and increments the violation counter, but keeps the port up?

Show explanation

Answer: C — restrict.

Restrict drops the offending frames, logs the event and counts it, while legitimate traffic keeps flowing.

Protect also drops the frames but silently, with no log and no counter. Shutdown is the default: the port goes into err-disabled state and stays down until it is reset. “err-disable” is the resulting state, not a violation mode you configure.

Question 16Sample question

Where should a standard IPv4 ACL normally be applied?

Show explanation

Answer: B — close to the destination.

A standard ACL (numbers 1–99 and 1300–1999) matches only the source address. Applied near the source, it would block that host from every destination, not just the one you meant to protect.

Extended ACLs match source, destination, protocol and ports, so they go close to the source and stop unwanted traffic before it crosses the network. Standard ACLs on VTY lines are a valid use, but not the only one.

Question 17Sample question

Which method does WPA3-Personal use for authentication instead of the WPA2 pre-shared key handshake?

Show explanation

Answer: B — SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals).

SAE replaces the WPA2-PSK 4-way handshake as the way the passphrase is checked. It resists offline dictionary attacks on a captured handshake and provides forward secrecy. WPA3 also requires Protected Management Frames.

TKIP is the old WPA encryption method, WEP is the original and broken Wi-Fi security, and LEAP is an old Cisco EAP method for enterprise authentication.

Question 18Drag and drop

Drag and drop the actions from the left to the AAA function they belong to on the right.

Checking a username and password
Allowing the user to run only show commands
Recording when a session starts and stops
Verifying a one-time code from a token
Assigning privilege level 15 after login
Logging every command the user enters
Authentication
Authorization
Accounting

Drag an item into a category box, or tap the item and then tap the box.

Show explanation

Correct placement:

  • Authentication: Checking a username and password, Verifying a one-time code from a token
  • Authorization: Allowing the user to run only show commands, Assigning privilege level 15 after login
  • Accounting: Recording when a session starts and stops, Logging every command the user enters

Authentication answers who are you?: password, one-time code, certificate.

Authorization answers what are you allowed to do?: privilege level, permitted commands, the VLAN or ACL assigned to a user.

Accounting answers what did you do?: session start and stop times, commands entered, data volume. With TACACS+, authorization and accounting can work per command, which is why it is preferred for device administration.

More Security Fundamentals questions in the full CCNA bank →

6. Automation & Programmability 10% of the exam

Question 19Sample question

In a controller-based (SDN) network, which interface does the controller use to communicate with the network devices?

Show explanation

Answer: B — Southbound API.

Southbound interfaces connect the controller down to switches and routers. Examples are OpenFlow, NETCONF, RESTCONF and SSH/CLI.

The northbound API, usually REST, faces up towards applications and scripts that use the controller. Cisco Catalyst Center (formerly DNA Center) is a typical example: scripts call its northbound REST API, and it configures devices southbound. The overlay is the virtual network built on top of the physical underlay, not an API.

Question 20Sample question

Which of these is valid JSON?

Show explanation

Answer: A.

JSON is made of key/value pairs inside { } and lists inside [ ]. Keys and string values must use double quotes, and pairs are separated by commas.

B uses single quotes, C has a trailing comma after the last pair, and D has an unquoted key. All three are fine in JavaScript or Python but invalid JSON, and an API will reject them.

Question 21Sample question

A script sends a POST request to a REST API to create a new VLAN, and the request succeeds. Which HTTP status code is the API expected to return?

Show explanation

Answer: B — 201 Created.

201 means the request succeeded and a new resource was created; the response usually includes its location or data. 200 is the generic “success”, typical for GET. 204 means success with an empty response body, often for DELETE. 401 means the request had no valid authentication.

Remember the CRUD mapping: Create = POST, Read = GET, Update = PUT/PATCH, Delete = DELETE.

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