Free CCNA 200-301 Practice Questions with Explanations
Twenty-one free sample questions in the style of the Cisco CCNA 200-301 exam: three multiple-choice questions for each exam domain plus three drag-and-drop tasks. Pick an answer, then press Show explanation to see whether you were right and why the other options are wrong. The full question bank has more than 1,400 questions in exam, practice and learning mode.
1. Network Fundamentals 20% of the exam
A host is configured with the address 172.16.45.130/26. What is the broadcast address of its subnet?
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Answer: C — 172.16.45.191.
A /26 mask is 255.255.255.192, so the subnets in the last octet go up in blocks of 64: .0, .64, .128, .192. The address .130 falls in the 172.16.45.128 subnet. The broadcast is the last address before the next subnet: .192 − 1 = .191. Usable hosts are .129–.190.
.127 is the broadcast of the previous subnet, .159 would be correct for a /27, and .255 for a /24.
An interface shows the IPv6 address FE80::21A:2BFF:FE3C:4D5E. Which type of address is it?
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Answer: C — Link-local.
Addresses in FE80::/10 are link-local. Every IPv6-enabled interface creates one automatically, routers never forward them off the link, and routing protocols such as OSPFv3 use them as the next-hop address. The FFFE in the middle of the interface ID shows it was built with modified EUI-64 from the MAC address.
Global unicast addresses currently come from 2000::/3, unique local from FC00::/7 (in practice FD00::/8), and multicast from FF00::/8.
Which statement about UDP is true?
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Answer: B.
UDP is connectionless: no handshake, no sequence numbers, no acknowledgements, no windowing. If reliability is needed, the application provides it. That low overhead is why voice, video, DNS queries, DHCP and TFTP use UDP.
The handshake and windowing belong to TCP. The UDP header is only 8 bytes (source port, destination port, length, checksum); 20 bytes is the minimum TCP header.
Drag and drop the items from the left to the OSI layer they belong to on the right.
Drag an item into a category box, or tap the item and then tap the box.
Show explanation
Correct placement:
- Layer 2 — Data Link: MAC address, Frame, Switch
- Layer 3 — Network: Router, IP address, Packet
- Layer 4 — Transport: TCP port number, Segment, UDP
Layer 2 moves frames between devices on the same link using MAC addresses, and a classic switch works here.
Layer 3 moves packets between networks using IP addresses, and this is the job of the router.
Layer 4 delivers data between applications: TCP and UDP add port numbers, and a TCP data unit is called a segment (a UDP one, a datagram).
2. Network Access 20% of the exam
Two Cisco switches are connected. Both ends of the link are configured with switchport mode dynamic auto. What is the result?
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Answer: B — access link.
A port in dynamic auto only answers DTP requests; it never starts negotiation. With auto on both sides nobody asks, so the link stays an access link. A trunk forms when at least one side is dynamic desirable or trunk.
In production, set trunks statically with switchport mode trunk and turn DTP off with switchport nonegotiate.
Three switches run Rapid PVST+. For VLAN 1 they advertise these bridge IDs. Which switch becomes the root bridge for VLAN 1?
SW1 priority 32769 MAC 0011.2233.4401 SW2 priority 32769 MAC 000A.1122.3301 SW3 priority 28673 MAC 00AA.BBCC.DD01
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Answer: C — SW3.
The lowest bridge ID wins, and the priority is compared before the MAC address. SW3 has 28673 (28672 + VLAN 1 as the system ID extension), lower than 32769 on the other two, so it is root even though its MAC address is the highest.
The MAC address only breaks a tie between equal priorities. If SW3 were removed, SW2 would win over SW1 because 000A… is lower than 0011….
Which pair of EtherChannel modes, one on each switch, forms a channel?
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Answer: C — active – passive.
LACP has two modes: active sends LACP packets, passive only replies. A channel forms when at least one side is active: active–active or active–passive. Passive–passive never starts negotiation.
On forces a channel with no protocol, so it only works with on at the other end. Auto is a PAgP mode and cannot talk to LACP.
3. IP Connectivity 25% of the exam
A router has these routes. Which one does it use to forward a packet to 10.1.1.200?
S 10.1.1.0/25 [1/0] via 192.168.1.1 D 10.1.1.0/24 [90/30720] via 192.168.2.1 O 10.1.0.0/16 [110/20] via 192.168.3.1 S* 0.0.0.0/0 [1/0] via 192.168.4.1
Show explanation
Answer: B — the EIGRP route 10.1.1.0/24.
The router picks the longest prefix that actually contains the destination. 10.1.1.0/25 covers only 10.1.1.0–10.1.1.127, so 10.1.1.200 does not match it at all. Of the routes that do match (/24, /16, /0), the /24 is the longest.
Administrative distance does not decide here: it only compares routes to the same prefix learned from different sources.
A router learns 192.168.50.0/24 through OSPF. You want a static route to the same network that is used only if the OSPF route disappears. Which command does that?
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Answer: C — administrative distance 115.
This is a floating static route. OSPF has an administrative distance of 110, so the static route needs a higher one to stay out of the routing table while OSPF is working. 115 does that, and when the OSPF route is lost the static route is installed.
Without a distance (A) the static route has AD 1 and replaces OSPF immediately; 100 is also lower than 110. AD 255 means “never trust”, so that route is never installed at all.
Two routers on the same Ethernet segment do not become OSPF neighbors. Which difference between them causes this?
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Answer: C — hello/dead interval mismatch.
Hello packets carry the hello and dead intervals, and neighbors must agree on them. They must also share the area ID, the subnet and mask, the authentication settings and the stub area flag. An MTU mismatch lets them see each other but leaves them stuck in EXSTART/EXCHANGE.
The process ID is local to each router and may differ. Router IDs must be different. Priority only influences the DR/BDR election.
4. IP Services 10% of the exam
What does this command configure?
ip nat inside source list 1 interface GigabitEthernet0/1 overload
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Answer: C — PAT (NAT overload) on the interface address.
ACL 1 selects which inside source addresses are translated, interface GigabitEthernet0/1 uses that interface’s address as the public address, and overload lets many hosts share it by tracking different source ports. This is the typical setup for an office internet connection.
Dynamic NAT would refer to a pool; static NAT maps one fixed inside address with ip nat inside source static. The interfaces still need ip nat inside and ip nat outside.
PCs in VLAN 20 must get addresses from a DHCP server that sits in a different subnet. What do you configure on the VLAN 20 default-gateway interface?
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Answer: B — ip helper-address.
DHCP Discover is a broadcast, and routers do not forward broadcasts. ip helper-address turns the gateway into a DHCP relay agent: it receives the broadcast, sends it as a unicast to the server and adds its own interface address (giaddr), so the server knows which pool to use.
ip dhcp pool and excluded-address are for a router that is itself the DHCP server. ip address dhcp makes the interface a DHCP client.
Which command makes a router synchronise its clock from the NTP server 10.0.0.1?
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Answer: B — ntp server 10.0.0.1.
ntp server makes the router an NTP client of that server. Check it with show ntp status (synchronised, stratum) and show ntp associations.
ntp master does the opposite: the router announces its own clock as an authoritative source. ntp peer sets up symmetric mode, where the two devices can sync each other. clock set sets the time by hand and takes a time and date, not an address.
Drag and drop the protocols from the left to the transport protocol they normally use on the right.
Drag an item into a category box, or tap the item and then tap the box.
Show explanation
Correct placement:
- TCP: SSH, HTTPS, SMTP, FTP
- UDP: DHCP, TFTP, SNMP, Syslog
TCP: SSH (22), HTTPS (443), SMTP (25) and FTP (20/21). These need reliable, ordered delivery, so they use TCP’s handshake, acknowledgements and retransmission.
UDP: DHCP (67/68), TFTP (69), SNMP (161/162) and Syslog (514). They are short request/response exchanges or one-way messages where TCP’s overhead is not worth it; TFTP adds its own simple acknowledgements on top of UDP.
DNS is the classic exception: queries use UDP 53, zone transfers and large responses use TCP 53, which is why it is not in this list.
5. Security Fundamentals 15% of the exam
Which port-security violation mode drops frames from unknown MAC addresses, sends a syslog message and increments the violation counter, but keeps the port up?
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Answer: C — restrict.
Restrict drops the offending frames, logs the event and counts it, while legitimate traffic keeps flowing.
Protect also drops the frames but silently, with no log and no counter. Shutdown is the default: the port goes into err-disabled state and stays down until it is reset. “err-disable” is the resulting state, not a violation mode you configure.
Where should a standard IPv4 ACL normally be applied?
Show explanation
Answer: B — close to the destination.
A standard ACL (numbers 1–99 and 1300–1999) matches only the source address. Applied near the source, it would block that host from every destination, not just the one you meant to protect.
Extended ACLs match source, destination, protocol and ports, so they go close to the source and stop unwanted traffic before it crosses the network. Standard ACLs on VTY lines are a valid use, but not the only one.
Which method does WPA3-Personal use for authentication instead of the WPA2 pre-shared key handshake?
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Answer: B — SAE (Simultaneous Authentication of Equals).
SAE replaces the WPA2-PSK 4-way handshake as the way the passphrase is checked. It resists offline dictionary attacks on a captured handshake and provides forward secrecy. WPA3 also requires Protected Management Frames.
TKIP is the old WPA encryption method, WEP is the original and broken Wi-Fi security, and LEAP is an old Cisco EAP method for enterprise authentication.
Drag and drop the actions from the left to the AAA function they belong to on the right.
Drag an item into a category box, or tap the item and then tap the box.
Show explanation
Correct placement:
- Authentication: Checking a username and password, Verifying a one-time code from a token
- Authorization: Allowing the user to run only show commands, Assigning privilege level 15 after login
- Accounting: Recording when a session starts and stops, Logging every command the user enters
Authentication answers who are you?: password, one-time code, certificate.
Authorization answers what are you allowed to do?: privilege level, permitted commands, the VLAN or ACL assigned to a user.
Accounting answers what did you do?: session start and stop times, commands entered, data volume. With TACACS+, authorization and accounting can work per command, which is why it is preferred for device administration.
6. Automation & Programmability 10% of the exam
In a controller-based (SDN) network, which interface does the controller use to communicate with the network devices?
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Answer: B — Southbound API.
Southbound interfaces connect the controller down to switches and routers. Examples are OpenFlow, NETCONF, RESTCONF and SSH/CLI.
The northbound API, usually REST, faces up towards applications and scripts that use the controller. Cisco Catalyst Center (formerly DNA Center) is a typical example: scripts call its northbound REST API, and it configures devices southbound. The overlay is the virtual network built on top of the physical underlay, not an API.
Which of these is valid JSON?
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Answer: A.
JSON is made of key/value pairs inside { } and lists inside [ ]. Keys and string values must use double quotes, and pairs are separated by commas.
B uses single quotes, C has a trailing comma after the last pair, and D has an unquoted key. All three are fine in JavaScript or Python but invalid JSON, and an API will reject them.
A script sends a POST request to a REST API to create a new VLAN, and the request succeeds. Which HTTP status code is the API expected to return?
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Answer: B — 201 Created.
201 means the request succeeded and a new resource was created; the response usually includes its location or data. 200 is the generic “success”, typical for GET. 204 means success with an empty response body, often for DELETE. 401 means the request had no valid authentication.
Remember the CRUD mapping: Create = POST, Read = GET, Update = PUT/PATCH, Delete = DELETE.
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